So, there’s an interesting contemplation that just occurred to me – as I’m supposed to be doing homework, of course.
John includes Mary as being present at quite a few major events, where the other Gospels either have her with others, or not present at all. But the last mention of Mary in John is at the tomb. I mean, he has her going to tell the Apostles that Christ is gone, but he doesn’t mention her again. He appears to his other followers repeatedly between Easter and Pentecost, but Mary is not mentioned in those appearances.
So then we have the Gospel of Thomas, and the ever controversial Verse (Chapter?) 114:
Simon Peter said to Him, “Let Mary leave us, for women are not worthy of Life.” Jesus said, “I myself shall lead her in order to make her male, so that she too may become a living spirit resembling you males. For every woman who will make herself male will enter the Kingdom of Heaven.”
Now, interestingly, there’s a young man who wrote a paper on this very topic, which can be found here. The whole paper is interesting, but the portion that caught my attention is:
This interpretation of logion 114 is supported by logion 22, in which Jesus says in part, “When you make the two one … when you make the male and the female a single one, such that the male is not male nor the female female…then you shall enter into [the Realm of Heaven].” Likewise he says in logion 75, “There are many standing at the door, but the united/whole/single ones (are) the ones who will go in to the bridal chamber.” Speaking to his mother-in-law Salome in logion 61, Jesus says that of two who share a bed (who are married) one shall live and the other die, implying the crucifixion and also Mary becoming one with him, and adds: “If one is whole, one will be filled with light; however, if one is divided (into separate male and female), one will be filled with darkness”
So, why is there no mention of Mary Magdalene after Christ’s resurrection? I can’t imagine that she would have left the cause. It’s a fascinating concept.